Medical Assistant Practice Test 4

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Question 1
Mrs. Adams is always late to her appointment. It is best to try to book this patient:

A
right after lunch.
B
at the end of the day.
C
never (do not schedule).
D
at the beginning of the day.
Question 1 Explanation: 
It is best to schedule this patient at the beginning of the day. If she is scheduled at the end of the day, the physician may have to stay late. Scheduling her at the middle of the day could potentially disrupt the afternoon schedule. Never scheduling the patient is not appropriate.
Question 2
Crimes committed against another person or property that are punishable by awarding damages to the victim are called:

A
misdemeanors.
B
torts.
C
felonies.
D
treason.
Question 2 Explanation: 
Torts are crimes punishable by fines. Misdemeanors are crimes against the state punishable by incarceration for less than a year. Felonies are serious crimes that are punishable by longer incarcerations. Treason is a betrayal of one’s country that is punishable by death, imprisonment, or large fines.
Question 3
What is the most important reason for draping a patient who is lying on the exam table?

A
Facilitating the specific exam.
B
Keeping the patient warm.
C
The convenience of the doctor.
D
Patient privacy.
Question 3 Explanation: 
Patient privacy and helping the patient feel safe are the most important reasons for draping. Draping is not an issue related to the doctor’s convenience nor does it relate to facilitating an exam.
Question 4
The recorded financial transactions in an accounting system are known as a:

A
posting.
B
ledger.
C
trial balance.
D
superbill.
Question 4 Explanation: 
The recorded transactions are known as having made a posting. The trial balance is a running balance of all figures. The superbill is a combination of the charge slip, statement, and insurance reporting form, while the ledger is a record of all charges, payments and adjustments for patients.
Question 5
Neurogenic shock is different from cardiogenic shock, because in neurogenic shock:

A
the patient’s blood pressure goes down as a result of disrupted autonomic pathways.
B
the patient’s life is threatened.
C
it is treated with fluids and rest.
D
the patient’s blood pressure goes down as a result of failed ventricles.
Question 5 Explanation: 
In neurogenic shock, the patient’s blood pressure drops as a result of decreased systemic vascular resistance; the blood is unable to circulate away from the extremities. In cardiogenic shock, lowered blood pressure is a result of failed heart ventricles. Both types of shock are life threatening and can be treated with rest and fluids.
Question 6
Which of the following facts is true about viruses?

A
A viral infection causes tuberculosis.
B
A viral infection can always be prevented by vaccination.
C
A viral infection cannot be transmitted by droplets.
D
A viral infection cannot be treated with antibiotics.
Question 6 Explanation: 
A viral infection cannot be treated with antibiotics, which only work against bacteria. It can be transmitted by droplets, does not cause tuberculosis (which is caused by a bacterium), and cannot always be prevented by vaccination.
Question 7
All the following factors influence the action of drugs EXCEPT:

A
Body weight
B
Use of generic medication
C
Age
D
Sex
Question 7 Explanation: 
The use of a generic instead of a brand medications should not affect drug action and do not have any measurable difference.
Question 8
Which condition does the DASH diet treat?

A
High blood pressure
B
Arterial disease
C
Diarrhea
D
Ulcers
Question 8 Explanation: 
The DASH diet is meant to help reduce high blood pressure. Diarrhea and upset stomach are alleviated with the BRAT. The bland diet helps reduce the severity of ulcers. Arterial disease should be addressed with a low fat, low cholesterol diet.
Question 9
The common suffix “-emia” means:

A
pus.
B
blood.
C
disease of.
D
enlargement.
Question 9 Explanation: 
The suffix “-emia” means blood, such as in septicemia, or infection of the blood.
Question 10
Which of the following specialists would a patient see for the condition of atrial fibrillation?

A
Gastroenterologist
B
Pulmonologist
C
Cardiologist
D
Nephrologist
Question 10 Explanation: 
A cardiologist, a doctor specializing in issues with the heart and blood vessels, would be seen for atrial fibrillation, which is an arrhythmia present in the heart.
Question 11
The correct order of filing units for Alana K. Broad-Moore (Mrs. John T. Moore) is:

A
Moore, Alana, Broad
B
Broad-Moore, Alana K.
C
Alana K. Broad-Moore
D
Moore, Mrs. John T.
Question 11 Explanation: 
The correct order of filing this patient’s name is: Broad-Moore, Alana K.; this filing is regardless of the husband’s name. The hyphenated portion of a last name must be present in the filing.
Question 12
Which of the following items is a collection of electronic records?

A
Internet
B
Hard copy
C
Database
D
Scanner
Question 12 Explanation: 
A database is a collection of electronic records. A scanner is a physical piece of equipment used to digitize paper documents. The internet is a collection of computers networked together. A hard copy is a physical copy of an electronic document.
Question 13
Using a sterile scalpel in a breast biopsy is an example of:

A
sterilization.
B
personal protective equipment.
C
sanitization.
D
surgical asepsis.
Question 13 Explanation: 
Surgical asepsis is the method of removing all bacteria from an instrument before it enters the body. Sterilization will remove the bacteria, but does not describe the technique presented here. Personal protective equipment protects the health care provider, not the patient. Sanitization means cleaning, but does not indicate a level of cleanliness necessary for safe surgery.
Question 14
The medical assistant performs an EKG (electrocardiogram) on a patient, and the tracing does not look as expected. What is the first thing the medical assistant should check?

A
Patient status
B
Electrical interference
C
Machine settings
D
Patient movement
Question 14 Explanation: 
While the other factors are important, the patient’s status is the single most important factor. Their symptoms may reveal whether the tracing is supported with evidence or not.
Question 15
A patient comes in with a wound to be dressed. The medical assistant discovers a forcible tearing of a flap of skin on the patient’s arm. This should be charted as a/n:

A
puncture.
B
avulsion.
C
contusion.
D
incision.
Question 15 Explanation: 
This situation describes an avulsion, which is the detachment of body part from its usual position. A contusion is a bruise with no skin opening. A puncture is an opening into the skin made by a sharp pointed object. An incision indicates a cut through the top layer of skin.
Question 16
A patient returns a fasting HbA1C of 8.9%. The medical assistant knows that this reading is:

A
not possible.
B
normal.
C
abnormal and high.
D
abnormal and low.
Question 16 Explanation: 
A HbA1C value should be between 4-6% in a patient who does not have diabetes. Therefore, a patient whose HbA1C is 8.9% is a diabetic with poor control. This patient’s value is abnormally high.
Question 17
The advantage of the pegboard system is that it provides control over:

A
collections only.
B
third-party payments.
C
collections, payments, and charges.
D
payments and charges.
Question 17 Explanation: 
The pegboard system is an efficient method that provides control over collections, payments, and charges. Third-party payments are written by an unknown party to a payee and are not an advantage of the pegboard system.
Question 18
On her way to the office, the medical assistant sees a blind woman walking with her seeing-eye dog along the sidewalk. They approach a puddle. Which of the following would be the correct response in this situation?

A
Gently take her by the elbow and steer her away from the puddle.
B
No action is needed; the dog has been trained on how to handle this type of situation.
C
Call to her aloud and let her know about the puddle.
D
Reach down and gently move the dog away from the puddle.
Question 18 Explanation: 
Seeing-eye dogs are trained on how to help their handler avoid obstacles. The dog will react appropriately to the puddle without the medical assistant’s intervention. It would be rude to touch a blind person without verbal cues first.
Question 19
Myelin sheaths are a component found in cells related to the:

A
renal system.
B
nervous system.
C
integumentary system.
D
cardiovascular system.
Question 19 Explanation: 
Myelin sheaths can be found on neurons in the nervous system and do not appear on any other cell types. The myelin sheath facilitates the propagation of action potentials through the neuron.
Question 20
Major depression would most commonly be treated with which of the following medications?

A
Ativan
B
Xanax
C
Buspar
D
Zoloft
Question 20 Explanation: 
Zoloft is the only antidepressant listed above. Xanax, Ativan, and Buspar are all medications used to treat anxiety.
Question 21
In order to efficiently gather a health history from an elderly patient, the medical assistant should:

A
ask open-ended questions to get more information.
B
ask questions that can be answered with a “yes” or a “no.”
C
inform that patient in the beginning that there is only a short time for the history.
D
ask a family member for the information instead.
Question 21 Explanation: 
Asking open-ended questions is the most effective way to receive full answers that could otherwise be incorrect if shortened to simple yes or no. Asking a family member is not appropriate and may not yield as accurate information as asking the patient directly. Elderly does not mean incompetent.
Question 22
The correct instrument used to dilate a body orifice is a/an:

A
catheter.
B
curette.
C
speculum.
D
extractor.
Question 22 Explanation: 
A speculum is used to dilate a body orifice to a larger size for surgical reasons. A catheter is meant to drain a substance from the body. A curette is used for scraping, while an extractor pulls out a foreign or desired material.
Question 23
A medical assistant cleans a wound that has had stitches in it and notices some pus. The medical assistant should first:

A
obtain a kit for culture.
B
clean the wound with disinfectant.
C
notify the patient.
D
notify the physician.
Question 23 Explanation: 
It is important to culture the bacteria causing the pus and identify it so that an antibiotic, either topical or oral, can be prescribed. Pus indicates infection and may interrupt the healing process. Cleaning the wound with disinfectant, notifying the physician, and notifying the patient should all be performed after obtaining the kit.
Question 24
The medical assistant eats a sandwich for lunch. The medical assistant knows that the bread of the sandwich, which is primarily carbohydrates, will start digestion in:

A
the large intestine.
B
the stomach.
C
the mouth.
D
the small intestine.
Question 24 Explanation: 
Digestion begins in the mouth, which is where amylase begins to break down carbohydrates.
Question 25
Which of the following does NOT have to be included if a patient requests a release of information?

A
The name of the physician who is asked to disclose information.
B
Signature of a witness.
C
The dates of service that can be discussed in disclosure.
D
The location where request was made.
Question 25 Explanation: 
The location where the request was made is not significant information and does not need to be included. In addition to the other three items listed above which must be included, the name of the person to whom the information is disclosed and a signature of the patient asking for disclosure with a dated signature must be included as well.
Question 26
A brother and his sister, who look very similar in age, arrive for an appointment. They tell the medical assistant that they are twins. The medical assistant knows that they must be:

A
identical twins.
B
fraternal twins.
C
identical fraternal twins.
D
twins, but it is impossible to tell what type.
Question 26 Explanation: 
These twins must be fraternal twins because they are not the same sex. Fraternal twins are the result of the fertilization of two separate eggs. Identical twins develop from the same egg and share the same DNA as a result.
Question 27
A call-back system may be used in phone triage in an office setting in order to determine:

A
who best to give the call to in the office.
B
the order in which the calls should be returned.
C
the severity of the problem so that the physician may call back if necessary.
D
that the person on the line is correctly identified.
Question 27 Explanation: 
Correctly identifying a caller who asks for confidential health information is absolutely critical and should be the first priority of a call-back system.
Question 28
When scheduling a patient’s upcoming appointment, the medical assistant should ask the patient for the purpose of the visit because:

A
the doctor may need to prepare items ahead of time.
B
this will determine how much time is needed for the appointment.
C
the medical assistant may need to double book as it gets closer.
D
it’s important to make sure there is enough room in the progress note.
Question 28 Explanation: 
This is the most important piece of information in order to determine the rest of the schedule and keep the office running on time. The other reasons are all secondary.
Question 29
Warfarin is a medication that requires routine monitoring of which of the following lab values?

A
PTT
B
INR
C
Platelets
D
Hemoglobin
Question 29 Explanation: 
A patient taking the medication Warfarin must have his or her PT/INR (prothrombin time/international normalized ratio) monitored for the duration of the therapy.
Question 30
Protein in the urine of a pregnant woman may indicate:

A
nothing, because this is a normal finding.
B
fetal abnormalities.
C
preeclampsia.
D
hypertension.
Question 30 Explanation: 
Protein in the urine is one of the first signs of preeclampsia and does not necessarily indicate fetal abnormalities or hypertension.
Question 31
When the physician refers a patient to an outside physician or specialist, the medical assistant must enter this information into the:

A
medical records.
B
claim report.
C
ticker file.
D
bookkeeping.
Question 31 Explanation: 
This information must be entered into the medical records in order to update the legal document. The other types of reports and entries are not where this information belongs.
Question 32
Which of the following values is considered a desirable total cholesterol level?

A
170 mg/dL
B
250 mg/dL
C
205 mg/dL
D
305 mg/dL
Question 32 Explanation: 
Most doctors prefer a patient’s total cholesterol to be less than 200 mg/dL. Therefore, 170 mg/dL is the only desirable value listed.
Question 33
Records of appointments should be kept, if possible, for:

A
two years.
B
one year.
C
three years.
D
five years.
Question 33 Explanation: 
Records of appointments should be kept for three years in case the appointment information is needed for a legal case.
Question 34
A patient in the waiting room who is a known diabetic becomes confused and disoriented. The first thing the medical assistant should do is:

A
ask the patient what symptoms he is having.
B
check the patient’s vital signs.
C
call an ambulance for the patient.
D
give a form of glucose to the patient.
Question 34 Explanation: 
Giving a form of glucose to the patient will most likely fix the problem. Diabetics can become confused when their blood sugar drops too low. If the problem quickly resolves after a snack, this was the problem all along and an ambulance does not need to be called.
Question 35
Located in the center of the brain, the _____ gland controls sleep/wake cycles of a person through the use of melatonin.

A
parathyroid
B
adrenal
C
pituitary
D
pineal
Question 35 Explanation: 
The pineal gland controls sleep/wake cycles of a person by releasing melatonin. The pituitary gland secretes hormones primarily responsible for growth, blood pressure, thyroid function, in addition to others. The adrenal glands secrete aldosterone, which regulates sodium and potassium. The parathyroid secretes parathyroid hormone, which regulates calcium balance.
Question 36
Which of the following filing steps includes ensuring that the appropriate person has been notified and has taken action with a document before its actual filing?

A
Sorting
B
Conditioning
C
Indexing
D
Releasing
Question 36 Explanation: 
Releasing means ensuring that the appropriate person or people have looked at the document before it is filed. Sorting, indexing, and conditioning are other parts of the process that do not include notification of the appropriate person.
Question 37
Which of the following is an essential component of an emergency preparedness plan for a medical facility?

A
A chain of command.
B
An insurance policy covering the office and equipment.
C
All of these are essential components.
D
A facility evacuation plan.
Question 37 Explanation: 
All of the features mentioned are important components for an emergency preparedness plan.
Question 38
A patient is in suspected anaphylaxis and requires an emergency tracheotomy. The medical assistant has never been trained in this procedure. The medical assistant should:

A
stop all medical aid until help arrives.
B
ask a fellow medical assistant to perform the tracheotomy.
C
do everything else possible to maintain the life signs of the patient.
D
perform the tracheotomy.
Question 38 Explanation: 
The medical assistant should never perform actions outside his or her scope of practice, which includes tracheotomies. Everything else should be done by the medical assistant to keep the patient alive until qualified assistance arrives.
Question 39
A doctor will be performing a thoracic procedure on a patient. The medical assistant knows that the best position to place this patient in is:

A
supine.
B
prone.
C
Trendelenburg.
D
lithotomy.
Question 39 Explanation: 
The best position to place the patient in is supine because it gives the doctor direct access to the thoracic cavity.
Question 40
A patient at the office where the medical assistant works has just been diagnosed with a miscarriage and has not yet passed any tissue. The medical assistant would expect to see which of the following procedures ordered next?

A
ABG
B
D&C
C
IVP
D
EKG
Question 40 Explanation: 
A D&C is the abbreviation for a dilation and curettage, which involves removing the miscarried tissue. An ABG stands for arterial blood gas and is usually performed in the hospital to investigate more severe conditions. An EKG is an electrocardiogram and tests for electrical issues with the heart. An IVP is an intravenous pyelogram and uses dye to visualize the kidneys, ureters and bladder.
Question 41
What is the Medicaid EHR Incentive Program?

A
A program that provides free EHR technology to Medicaid health care providers.
B
A program that encourages the installation of EHR technology, regardless of whether this technology is actually used by the provider.
C
A program that requires all Medicaid health care providers to adopt EHR technology.
D
A program that provides incentive payments for Medicaid health care providers to adopt and use EHR technology.
Question 41 Explanation: 
This voluntary government program offers incentive payments to providers who adopt electronic health record technology. The providers must show that they are using their EHRs in a meaningful way.
Question 42
Medications that feature pain relief without sedation include:

A
anesthetics.
B
antiemetics.
C
analgesics.
D
antibiotics.
Question 42 Explanation: 
Analgesics are pain relievers that do not affect levels of consciousness. Antiemetics help a patient feel less nauseous while also reducing emesis (vomiting). Antibiotics kill bacteria. Anesthetics do not provide pain relief but do provide sedation.
Question 43
The first step of patient teaching with regard to post-op instructions is:

A
encouraging the patient to actively participate in his or her health.
B
preparing a teaching plan for the patient.
C
asking what the patient already knows, if anything, about the post-op for their procedure.
D
writing a handout to be given to the patient to take home.
Question 43 Explanation: 
Assessing where to begin is the most important part of teaching. The patient may think they know some things, or they may have some incorrect information that should be corrected. Assess the baseline first before moving on to the teaching.
Question 44
What is an alternate name for a charge slip?

A
Superbill
B
Subrogation
C
Claim
D
HCFA-1500
Question 44 Explanation: 
An alternate name for a charge slip is a superbill, which is the bill the patient receives from the physician at the time of service. It shows the time of visit, tests performed, diagnosis, charges, and when to return. HCFA-1500 is the form accepted by most insurance carriers. Subrogation is the right of an insurer to collect money, and the claim is a demand for payment.
Question 45
Which of the following bacteria types is Gram-positive, cocci, and grows in clusters?

A
Escherichia coli
B
Staphylococcus aureus
C
Neisseria meningitidis
D
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Question 45 Explanation: 
Staphylococcus aureus is the only Gram-positive cocci that grows in clusters listed above. Neisseria is a Gram-negative bacteria. Escherichia coli is a Gram-negative bacillus. Streptococcus pneumoniae is a Gram-positive bacterium, but it grows in chains.
Question 46
The medical assistant who works in an office location would not expect which of the following procedures to be performed in office?

A
Biopsy of the lung
B
Cyst removal
C
Incision and drainage of a wound
D
Suture removal
Question 46 Explanation: 
The biopsy of the lung is a highly invasive procedure and should be done in a hospital, inpatient setting due to the risks involved. All other procedures can be done in the office setting.
Question 47
Once a medical assistant has made an appointment over the phone, he should:

A
say “Thank you and have a nice day” before hanging up.
B
tell the caller to repeat the information to be sure he has the right information.
C
repeat the name and phone number back to the caller.
D
say “Good-bye” and hang up.
Question 47 Explanation: 
It is important to be sure that the medical assistant has the correct name and phone number of the patient in order to verify all other information. If this information is not verified, the caller may prove difficult to contact.
Question 48
A medical assistant is working on assisting an obese pediatric patient with weight loss. When the child shows a decrease in weight at appointments, the medical assistant gives him a gold star sticker. This is an example of:

A
patient-centered care.
B
cognitive therapy.
C
role playing.
D
behavior reinforcement.
Question 48 Explanation: 
Behavior reinforcement is a method for providing the patient with a positive incentive and reward for a certain behavior. Role playing involves asking the patient to pretend to assume a new identity or behavior. Compared with behavior reinforcement, patient-centered care is too nonspecific to be an accurate description. Cognitive therapy relies on the patient’s current conscious thoughts to help produce better health.
Question 49
A patient comes into the office and says she has been stung by a bee. She seems to be having difficulty breathing. This patient may have:

A
an asthma attack.
B
anaphylactic shock.
C
a myocardial infarction.
D
cardiogenic shock.
Question 49 Explanation: 
Anaphylactic shock is the most likely condition because it is linked to immune system reactions, which is a likely response to a bee sting. There are no indications that this patient has asthma or cardiac issues.
Question 50
Which one of the following statements is TRUE?

A
The specific gravity of urine is part of its microscopic organization.
B
Hemoglobin count measures oxygen-carrying capacity of blood and is measured in g/dl.
C
A spirometer measures the relative humidity of expired air.
D
The erythrocyte sedimentation rate is a way of observing how blood clots.
Question 50 Explanation: 
Hemoglobin count does measure the oxygen-carrying capacity of blood. ESR (erythrocyte sedimentation rate) is a way of measuring inflammation, not clotting; specific gravity relates to the dilution of urine, not what’s in it. A spirometer measures the volume of expired air, not relative humidity.
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