Medical Assistant Practice Test 2

Here is our second free Medical Assistant practice test.

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Question 1
The medical assistant examines the broken bone of an eight-year-old child. The assistant feels multiple separate pieces within the break. This break would be classified as:

A
comminuted.
B
pathological.
C
spiral.
D
compound.
Question 1 Explanation: 
A comminuted fracture is one in which the bone breaks into several pieces. Compound breaks involve open skin where the bone is more at risk for infection. A spiral fracture is usually caused by a twisting force. Pathological fractures are caused by a disease process and not an injury.
Question 2
Erythema may be caused by any of the following EXCEPT:

A
blushing.
B
carbon monoxide poisoning.
C
dermatitis.
D
sunburn.
Question 2 Explanation: 
Erythema, also known as redness of the skin, is not caused by carbon monoxide poisoning. The remaining answer choices, however, can and do cause erythema.
Question 3
The medical assistant creates a new chart for a patient who has just been introduced to the practice. The patient will be seeing the physician for the first time next week. The office policy is to use a bright yellow sticker to show that this is a new patient. This situation represents a method of:

A
sorting.
B
filing.
C
cross-referencing.
D
coding.
Question 3 Explanation: 
Coding is the process used when there is a need to distinguish between files in a filing system. Color-coding is often used to distinguish new patients to the practice, returning patients, formal diagnoses, etc. Sorting or filing the actual folder is a method of organization for later.
Question 4
During an exam, the physician wants to check the pupils of the eyes. The medical assistant hands the physician a(n):

A
ophthalmoscope.
B
Snellen test.
C
tuning fork.
D
otoscope.
Question 4 Explanation: 
An ophthalmoscope is used to examine the eyes. An otoscope is used to examine the ears. A tuning fork is used to test ear hearing. The Snellen test examines the person’s sense of vision.
Question 5
The medical assistant is asked to collect a coagulation study, a blood glucose test, and general blood cultures on a patient. The colors of the tubes she will need are:

A
gray, light blue, and yellow.
B
pink, green, and lavender.
C
gray, light blue and red.
D
lavender, blue, and pink.
Question 5 Explanation: 
The gray tube is used for blood glucose collection, the blue tube is used for coagulation studies, and the yellow tube is used for blood cultures.
Question 6
Which of the following documents would be most appropriate to be put in the shredder?

A
The previous patient encounter.
B
A patient’s x-ray, newly received by the office.
C
A piece of scrap paper listing exam room numbers only.
D
A copy of lab results that have already been received and filed for a patient.
Question 6 Explanation: 
A copy of lab results that have already been received does not need to be filed twice, but because it includes personal information, it must be shredded. A previous patient encounter and an x-ray should be filed and saved. The scrap paper may be thrown in the regular trash since it does not contain personal patient identifiers.
Question 7
CLIA is an abbreviation that stands for:

A
Common Licensure Interface Act.
B
Clinical Laboratory Improvements Act.
C
Clerical Labor Interests Act.
D
Criminal Law Intervention Act.
Question 7 Explanation: 
The CLIA, or Clinical Laboratory Improvements Act, guarantees that the lab tests of an individual physician’s lab meet or exceed a certain quality and standard.
Question 8
Which of the following benefits of an Electronic Health Record (EHR) is one that protects patient privacy?

A
It is organized chronologically and provides for a more complete patient history.
B
It includes password protection that can be granted when an employee is hired, and revoked if that employee leaves the practice.
C
It enables providers to exchange records in a more cost-efficient manner.
D
It may be accessed by the physician from a handheld device even if the physician is not in the office.
Question 8 Explanation: 
Password protections that can be granted or revoked help prevent the anonymous tampering of records that may occur, intentionally or unintentionally, by employees of the office. Because only those with access to the password can view the patient’s records, a major benefit of an EHR is the security provided by password protection.
Question 9
Which of the following patient characteristics is a component of the patient’s social history?

A
The patient drinks a glass of wine once a week.
B
The patient has had her gallbladder removed.
C
The patient has a father who died of heart failure at age 65.
D
The patient weighs 132 lbs.
Question 9 Explanation: 
Drinking a glass of wine once a week is part of the patient’s social history. Their weight and gallbladder removal is part of their physical history. Knowing that their father died of heart failure is familial history.
Question 10
A patient who is diabetic begins to complain of headache and dizziness in the waiting room. A blood sugar measurement reveals it is 42. The medical assistant:

A
lays the patient down to increase blood pressure to the head.
B
gives the patient a glass of orange juice initially.
C
gives the patient some peanut butter crackers initially.
D
calls 911.
Question 10 Explanation: 
Initially, it is best to give the patient some orange juice, followed by something with slower digesting proteins like peanut butter crackers or milk. Calling 911 may not be necessary yet. Do not lay the patient down; keep them sitting up so that they may eat.
Question 11
Which of the following acts regulates the minimum wage and standardizes the number of hours an employee is allowed to work?

A
The Fair Labor Standards Act
B
COBRA
C
Health Information Portability and Accountability Act (HIPPA)
D
Workers’ compensation
Question 11 Explanation: 
The Fair Labor Standards Act regulates minimum wage and standardizes the number of hours an employee is allowed to work. HIPPA protects health information, while COBRA protects employees changing jobs so that they do not have a lapse of insurance. Worker’s compensation covers the cost of bills incurred because of an injury that occurs on the job.
Question 12
In order to respond most effectively to sudden, serious cardiac arrest, what equipment should be on hand in the medical office?

A
Electric paddles.
B
An AED (Automatic Electronic Defibrillator)
C
IV catheter insertion kit.
D
Oxygen.
Question 12 Explanation: 
The AED would be most effective for determining if the patient is in true cardiac arrest and whether or not they require a shock. Giving a shock manually with electric paddles is no longer recommended. Oxygen may help, but is not the priority response. An IV will be helpful once the patient has a pulse.
Question 13
If at all possible, the medical assistant should schedule follow-up appointments at which stage in the current visit?

A
At the time the initial appointment is booked.
B
After the medical assistant takes pre-appointment vital signs.
C
Via telephone the day after the patient’s appointment.
D
After the physician examines the patient and makes a recommendation.
Question 13 Explanation: 
It is important to wait for the physician to make a recommendation, but it is also important for the patient to have a follow-up appointment on the books before leaving. Otherwise, it could be possible for you or the patient to forget to schedule one entirely.
Question 14
The medical assistant is preparing for a sterile procedure. When applying sterile gloves, she opens the peel pack. The correct action to take next is to:

A
slide the fingers of the gloved hand under the other cuff.
B
pick up the cuff of the non-dominant hand.
C
open the inner sterile pack using the tabs.
D
tuck the thumb into the palm and slide the hand into the glove.
Question 14 Explanation: 
Once the peel pack is open, next open the inner sterile pack using the tabs. Pick up the cuff of the glove for the dominant hand, lay the thumb flat against the palm of the hand and slip the hand into the glove. With the gloved hand, slide the fingers under the cuff of the other glove. Again tuck the thumb into the palm and slide the hand into the glove.
Question 15
A mother calls the office and says she thinks her toddler has ingested some cough syrup that was in a bottle under the sink. The medical assistant directs her to:

A
wait and observe the child for an hour to see if treatment is necessary.
B
immediately go to the hospital.
C
immediately come in and have the toddler seen.
D
call Poison Control and follow their directions.
Question 15 Explanation: 
Any ingestion of a noxious substance must be considered life-threatening until proven otherwise. Calling Poison Control is the most appropriate action to take in this situation, as they can best assist the mother and toddler.
Question 16
The developmental issue in Erikson’s theory of generativity vs. stagnation occurs for:

A
young adults.
B
adolescents.
C
middle-aged adults.
D
older adults.
Question 16 Explanation: 
Erikson’s generativity vs. stagnation is a developmental issue that occurs for middle-aged adults. Older adults work through ego integrity vs. despair while young adults are occupied with intimacy vs. isolation. Adolescence focuses on identity vs. role confusion.
Question 17
The temporal pulse is located:

A
on the forehead.
B
in the armpit.
C
on the back of the knee.
D
in the neck.
Question 17 Explanation: 
The temporal pulse measures the pulse located in the temporal area of the skull, which is located on the forehead. The popliteal pulse is found on the back of the knee, while the carotid pulse is in the neck. There is no easily palpable pulse in the armpit.
Question 18
All of the following are parenteral routes of medication administration EXCEPT:

A
IM
B
subQ
C
IV
D
PO
Question 18 Explanation: 
PO means by mouth and indicates the medication should be taken orally, whereas parenteral means into the body via other methods. IV means intravenous administration, and IM indicates intramuscular. SubQ means injected subcutaneously into the fatty tissue layer.
Question 19
The physician finishes with a patient at 9:15am and discovers his next patient is not scheduled until 9:45am. The physician must wait until that patient arrives and is registered. This problem is known as:

A
underbooking.
B
clustering.
C
overbooking.
D
building physician patience.
Question 19 Explanation: 
Underbooking is a problem that may occur when patients have been scheduled too far apart based on their appointment time and how long the type of appointment should take. Every effort should be made to conscientiously and efficiently book patients. In cases where too many instances of underbooking take place, the underlying issue should be found and addressed.
Question 20
The primary care physician for whom the medical assistant works has just diagnosed the patient with emphysema. The medical assistant knows that the patient will most likely be referred next to a(n):

A
obstetrician.
B
rheumatologist.
C
ophthalmologist.
D
pulmonologist.
Question 20 Explanation: 
A pulmonologist is a doctor who specializes in lung disease, of which emphysema is one type. An ophthalmologist specializes in eyes, a rheumatologist specializes in arthritis and joint disease, and an obstetrician specializes in pregnancy and birth.
Question 21
Which of the following is the primary function of the thymus before the age of two?

A
Remove carbon dioxide.
B
Secrete thymosin to cause T-lymphocyte maturation.
C
Trap bacteria and foreign bodies.
D
Provide immunity.
Question 21 Explanation: 
Before the age of two, the thymus works to provide immunity for the child. After the age of two, it secretes thymosin to cause T-lymphoctye maturation. As the person ages, the thymus eventually shrinks and atrophies. The respiratory system removes carbon dioxide. The lymph nodes trap bacteria and foreign bodies.
Question 22
A patient comes into the physician’s office complaining of lightheadedness and fatigue. Suddenly the patient falls unconscious to the floor, and then wakes up after about five seconds. The medical assistant documents the event as (a):

A
seizure.
B
laceration.
C
syncope.
D
atonal.
Question 22 Explanation: 
Syncope describes a partial or total loss of consciousness, also described as a faint. A laceration is an open wound. Atonal is a music term that does not apply here. A seizure would involve a momentary loss of consciousness and/or convulsing limbs.
Question 23
While writing a letter, the medical assistant stops to check her own writing for correct grammar. Which of the following issues would need to be fixed?

A
Medical abbreviations lacking a full description.
B
An apostrophe that is used when abbreviating a decade.
C
A colon that is used after an independent clause in a sentence.
D
A semicolon that is placed between two short but complete sentences.
Question 23 Explanation: 
In all documents, medical abbreviations should be fully written out. All other options are grammatically correct.
Question 24
A three-year-old child is to be examined by the medical assistant. To assist the child and improve communication, the medical assistant should:

A
remind the child that he is a big boy now and can be brave for a little shot.
B
ask the mother to wait in a separate area while an immunization is administered.
C
give the child a lollipop as a distraction.
D
offer the child your stethoscope to listen to his own heartbeat.
Question 24 Explanation: 
Letting the child play with the stethoscope is appropriate in this situation. It will not only occupy the child’s hands, but will also allow the child to feel included and provide a relevant distraction, unlike the lollipop. The mother should be in the room to reduce stranger anxiety. It is not appropriate to give false reassurance, because it is true that immunizations will briefly hurt at the site.
Question 25
Which of the following lab results would be most essential to estimate clotting ability?

A
Platelets
B
WBCs (White Blood Cells)
C
Hemoglobin
D
HbA1C
Question 25 Explanation: 
Platelets would be most essential, as they are a key component in the ability to clot. HbA1C is an effective measure of diabetic control. Hemoglobin may reveal anemia, but not clotting. The amount of WBCs reflects immune system function.
Question 26
A patient does not show up for his appointment, nor is there any record of him calling to notify the office that he will be unable to make it. This appointment would be classified as:

A
cause for dismissal.
B
a cancellation.
C
a no-show.
D
an emergency.
Question 26 Explanation: 
Unless it becomes a habit, missing an appointment is not necessarily cause for dismissal from a doctor’s practice. Notifying the doctor’s office would make the visit a cancellation; zero notice is what makes it a no-show. It is unknown whether, in this case, the patient forgot the appointment or there is an emergency.
Question 27
A pregnant patient arrives at the clinic and says she needs the lab results that determine “whether or not my blood will attack the baby.” The medical assistant knows she is referring to:

A
the blood cultures.
B
the Rh antibody test.
C
the CBC (Complete Blood Count).
D
the fetal alcohol test.
Question 27 Explanation: 
The mother is referring to the Rh antibody test, which looks for antibodies related to different blood types that might attack the baby’s hemoglobin cells if the baby is Rh+ and the mother is Rh−.
Question 28
One of the office’s patients is placed on hospice care. Hospice care is a style of medicine that focuses on end-of-life care, reducing pain, and is considered most specifically:

A
diagnostic.
B
replacement.
C
palliative.
D
prophylactic.
Question 28 Explanation: 
Hospice care is generally considered palliative, which means to provide relief from symptoms instead of the usual goal to cure the illness. Diagnostic medicine provides a clue as to why the symptoms would be occurring and a prophylactic is primarily designed for prevention. In this case, there is nothing that needs replacing, so replacement therapy is incorrect.
Question 29
How old must a patient be in order to be eligible to participate in Medicare coverage Part A?

A
Over 25.
B
No age limit.
C
Over 50.
D
Over 65.
Question 29 Explanation: 
A patient must be older than 65 in order to participate in Medicare Part A. The program was created to cover major medical care for seniors, including medical services and supplies.
Question 30
A patient tells the medical assistant that she has just been diagnosed with cancer and doesn’t know what to do. Her husband and daughter have already started a fundraiser at his work to help pay for her medical expenses. Which of the following statements shows empathy?

A
“I don’t know what to say.”
B
“I understand how that must make you feel.”
C
“What does your daughter think of it?”
D
“Where can I donate to the fundraiser?”
Question 30 Explanation: 
Although it is not always possible to know how someone feels without having actually been in that situation, it is possible to express empathy by relating the fact that you are imagining how they are feeling. Donating money is kind, but does not show empathy. Asking about the patient’s daughter is thoughtful, but does not take into account her feelings.
Question 31
A microscope in the lab is suddenly unable to focus into specific detail. Which of its parts should the medical assistant suspect is broken?

A
The coarse adjustment knob.
B
The fine adjustment knob.
C
The stage.
D
The arm.
Question 31 Explanation: 
The coarse adjustment knob is used to initially visualize an object, at which point the fine adjustment knob is used to further focus the object. The stage is where the slide or object being examined sits. The arm is what holds the lenses away from the stage.
Question 32
Which of the following is a correct principle of surgical hand-washing?

A
Turn off the water using the foot control.
B
Point hands downward so that water runs down and away from the hands.
C
Wash for a total of 5 minutes.
D
Dry your hands on a clean towel.
Question 32 Explanation: 
The hands should be pointed upward so that water runs down toward the elbows. It is correct to turn off the water using the foot control. Dry the hands on a sterile towel once the hands have been washed for a total of 6-10 minutes.
Question 33
The lab calls the office and reports that they are unable to collect a lipid panel on one of the patients the office has sent over. What is the most likely reason they were unable to collect it?

A
The lab could only obtain two tubes of blood.
B
The patient brought the lab slip but had consumed water that morning.
C
The patient confessed to eating a poor diet the day before.
D
The patient ate breakfast the morning of the test.
Question 33 Explanation: 
The lipid panel blood test requires fasting. It does not matter what diet the patient has been eating, because diet does not significantly influence cholesterol. Two tubes of blood would be more than enough; only one tube is required. Drinking water would be okay, but abstaining from food is mandatory.
Question 34
A female patient is found to have a mass in her right breast. The physician recommends surgery, but the patient refuses, stating that she will dissolve the mass with the power of positive thinking. The defense mechanism this patient demonstrates is:

A
denial.
B
sublimation.
C
undoing.
D
regression.
Question 34 Explanation: 
Denial is a defense mechanism whereby the person flatly refuses to accept reality and cannot yet begin coping. Regression would be a step back in maturity or social functioning. Undoing is a way of trying to fix or erase the past. Sublimation is the act of turning socially unacceptable behaviors into ones that are acceptable or even positive in order to cope with something.
Question 35
The type of appointment scheduling most likely to be used for short patient visits in an office with multiple physicians is:

A
double-booking.
B
wave.
C
modified wave.
D
cluster.
Question 35 Explanation: 
Double-booking ensures that both physicians are busy throughout their schedules. Wave scheduling assumes some patients will be late and that other patients will require more time with a single practitioner. Modified-wave potentially leads to unnecessarily long wait times for both doctors’ patients. Cluster-scheduling might not work, as each doctor may see different types of patients.
Question 36
Emergency treatment for a second-degree burn would include which of the following?

A
Breaking any blisters seen.
B
Applying an emollient-type cream.
C
Applying a cool wet piece of gauze to the area.
D
Deferring to the physician when next available.
Question 36 Explanation: 
Cooling the area with a cool wet cloth is the most appropriate action to take for a second-degree burn. If any blisters are observed, do not break them. The cream may be correct, but the physician, not the medical assistant, needs to make that assessment.
Question 37
Furuncles most commonly occur in patients who are also diagnosed with:

A
diabetes.
B
heart disease.
C
hearing loss.
D
impetigo.
Question 37 Explanation: 
A boil, also called a furuncle, is a deep folliculitis, infection of the hair follicle. Furuncles most commonly occur in patients who already have impaired ability to fight infection, such as those with diabetes or who are otherwise immunocompromised. Heart disease, hearing loss, and impetigo are not related to this condition. Furuncles most commonly develop in hairy areas of the body such as the groin, neck, and armpit.
Question 38
A Medicare patient has been admitted to the hospital for four days. The medical assistant knows that the hospital will charge the patient’s insurance with a cost equivalent to:

A
what costs were actually incurred during the stay.
B
a flat fee based on the patient’s diagnosis, age, and presence of comorbidities.
C
an estimate that will later be refunded based on actual costs.
D
an estimate based on what the medical record specialist recommends.
Question 38 Explanation: 
Medicare pays a flat fee based on several factors related to the patient and their illness; it does not pay an actual cost of what was incurred during the stay. In general, estimates are not used by hospitals when charging for admission stays.
Question 39
The physician orders a medication to relieve chest pain called Nitroglycerin, which is to be administered sublingually. The patient asks the medical assistant what this means. The medical assistant replies:

A
“You should take this medication two hours before eating a meal.”
B
“You should place this medication on top of your tongue and suck on it like a lozenge.”
C
“You should place this medication underneath your tongue and let it dissolve.”
D
“You should take this medication with food.”
Question 39 Explanation: 
Sublingual means beneath the tongue. This medication is properly taken when it is allowed to dissolve rather than be swallowed or taken with or without food.
Question 40
The medical assistant is instructed to compose a letter to a patient in full block format. Once she has typed the letter, she formats it correctly by:

A
aligning all content to the left side of the document with no greeting.
B
centering the date on the page.
C
indenting the first line of every paragraph.
D
aligning all content to the left side of the document and including a greeting.
Question 40 Explanation: 
Full block format specifies a left alignment of all content while including a greeting. Simplified format is also aligned all to the left, but does not include a greeting. Indenting the first line of every paragraph and centering the date on the page are not a part of full block format.
Question 41
Symptoms of meningitis typically include:

A
paralysis on one side of the body.
B
nuchal rigidity, fever, and headache.
C
headache, fever, pain that radiates down the leg.
D
bowel and bladder dysfunction.
Question 41 Explanation: 
Meningitis is an inflammation of the meninges, the membranes covering the brain and spinal cord. Due to this inflammation, patients will often display nuchal rigidity (an inability to flex neck muscles coupled with neck pain), fever, headache, vomiting, and altered level of consciousness. This condition can be deadly without treatment.
Question 42
The physician asks you, the medical assistant, to administer a vaccination to a child. The child is 3-years-old and does not understand why he has to get a vaccination. Which of the following would be necessary for best practice?

A
Wear only one glove to ensure accuracy when injecting.
B
Wipe the area to be injected with a cool cloth.
C
Assure the child that the injection will not hurt.
D
Enlist the mother to hold the child still to maintain safety.
Question 42 Explanation: 
Never tell a child that an injection will not hurt, as there is sure to be some discomfort and you will lose the trust of your patient. Wipe the area to be injected with alcohol and wear two gloves. It’s a good idea to get someone the child trusts in order to hold him steady.
Question 43
A patient provides a urine sample for the office’s routine lab work. The pH of the urine comes back as 8.9. The medical assistant would label the sample as:

A
abnormal and alkaline.
B
normal and neutral.
C
normal and acidic.
D
abnormal and acidic.
Question 43 Explanation: 
The normal pH of urine is considered to be 4.6–8.0, so a reading of 8.9 would be considered alkaline. Less than 4.6 would be considered acidic. Therefore this specimen is also considered abnormal and should be reported for further evaluation.
Question 44
What is one of the major differences between the ICD-9-CM system and the ICD-10-PCS system?

A
Dummy placeholders using an X are no longer allowed in ICD-10, although they were allowed in ICD-9.
B
The ICD-9 codes have been entirely scrapped and ICD-10 is a brand new foundation.
C
With ICD-10, details for ambulatory and managed care encounters have been expanded.
D
In ICD-10, the fourth digit describes the type of encounter for injuries and treatment of externally caused injuries and illnesses.
Question 44 Explanation: 
With the ICD-10 system, details for various encounters have been expanded to make them much more specific than the ICD-9 system. ICD-10 does build off of ICD-9; it is not brand new. Dummy placeholders using an X are now present to allow room for expansion in ICD-10. It is the seventh digit that describes the type of encounter, not the fourth.
Question 45
The medical assistant is responsible for all sterilization in a certain medical practice. One day, she notices an instrument that is still in the autoclave from the last time she used it on date 7/26/15. She realizes that she forgot to unload it once it was sterilized. It is now 8/26/15. The item is considered:

A
sterile.
B
not sterile.
C
an unknown.
D
able to be used for clean procedures, but not sterile ones.
Question 45 Explanation: 
The item is considered to be not sterile because sterilization from an autoclave lasts 28 days for any item left out of impervious plastic wrap. The item must be re-sterilized and packed correctly this time.
Question 46
The purpose of a quality control log for testing equipment is to:

A
test the quality of equipment and evaluate the need for an upgrade.
B
provide extra work during downtime.
C
pass inspection by lab officials.
D
ensure correct results for the standards required are being returned.
Question 46 Explanation: 
Without a quality control log, there is no way to know that a private lab is generating correct results. Faulty equipment may skew test results, and their faults are generally only detectable by doing a quality control check with a control sample.
Question 47
Which of the following is NOT appropriate for use in a medical record?

A
Blue or black ink is acceptable for use.
B
Some abbreviations may be acceptable.
C
The medical assistant makes a mistake and uses white-out to correct it.
D
A patient is unable to answer a question and it is noted in the record.
Question 47 Explanation: 
No part of the medical record should be left blank; instead, note that the patient was unable to answer. Mistakes should be fixed with a single line through the error, with a signature and “error” written in, not with white-out. Blue or black ink is correct for use in the medical record. Check with the individual office or practice for which, if any, medical abbreviations are acceptable.
Question 48
Which of the following is NOT one of the Six Rights of Medication Administration?

A
The right drug.
B
The right time.
C
The right doctor.
D
The right patient.
Question 48 Explanation: 
Although it is important to have the correct doctor listed on a prescription, it is not a vital part of maintaining patient safety as you administer the medication. The 'Six Rights' are: (1) The right medication (2) The right route (3) The right time (4) The right client (5) The right dosage (6) The right documentation.
Question 49
Which of the following provides the Medicare prescription drug benefit?

A
Medicare Part B
B
Medicare Part A
C
Medicare Part C
D
Medicare Part D
Question 49 Explanation: 
Medicare Part D is a federal government program which subsidizes the costs of prescription drugs and drug insurance premiums for Medicare Recipients. This program was authorized by the Medicare Modernization Act of 2003.
Question 50
Which method of documentation for patient medical records has the patient's problems listed in the front of the chart?

A
SOMR
B
Reverse Chronological Order
C
SOAP
D
POMR
Question 50 Explanation: 
POMR stands for Problem-Oriented Medical Records. The patient's problems are listed and numbered at the front, and each visit is associated with a problem number.
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